My stepfather gave me some money to buy a piece of land. So he could get a tax deduction (?) he gave me $12,000 and my wife $12,000. I bought a lot
for $26,000. I saw an earlier statement on the forum about “intent”. His intent was to give me the money. She has never paid any upkeep on the lot.
I put new gravel down a while back and had some trees cut down. I have paid all the taxes on it for 3 yrs. She left 2 1/2 yrs ago. Would that be marital
property in a divorce? My mobile home (in my name only and not marital property) is on the lot. Thank you.
Her name is on the deed.