Here’s the issue, A family member divorced his wife 20 years ago. Her name is still on the Deed to the home and has not paid anything on property taxes or mortgage. He now wants to sell the home, but she is wanting half of the proceeds from the sale. Can she do this or is there a way he can keep from paying after this long since she has not helped with the upkeep or property taxes or mortgage?
If her name is still on the deed, and the property was never distributed via equitable distribution, the property is still jointly owned and she can get one half of the value.