House that was purchased before marriage

I purchased my home in 2007 and have faithfully made all the mortgage payments on time each month.
Soon to be ex and I were married in 2010.I never added him to mortgage or joint checking or savings account etc.
It’s my understanding from speaking with a paralegal that the ex is entitled to half the amount of debt that was reduced on my home over the course of the 5 years we were married??? Is this correct??
I was told to find out the principal mortgage balance on the date of marriage and the principal mortgage balance on the date of separation. The difference will be reflective of how much debt was reduced on my home. This will also be half of what he is entitled to.
This can’t be right, can it?

Even though you purchased the home before the marriage, you used marital funds to make the mortgage payments during the course of the marriage. Marital funds refers to any funds funds earned during the marriage (regardless of it being kept in an account only in your name). As such, there is a marital component to the house, and a principal reduction, as you described, is one way to determine what the marital component to the home is.

Thanks for the response. I hate the answer but do appreciate the help!

You are welcome.