When my wife and I separated she went out and bought a new house with only a separation agreement. There was no free trader agreement. We were still married., but separated. Am I liable for anything here? Is it someone’s responsibility to have seen that a free trader agreement was executed? What are th e legal ramifications? I’ve been told to not worry about it (legally).
The free trade agreement would be for her protection, ensuring that you have no inchoate estate rights in any real property she purchased after separation. So long as you did not sign any loan papers you have no responsibility for the home.