Hello! Any help with these questions are greatly appreciated
We purchased the house after marriage. My name is on the title, but the mortage payments/credit is solely in my husband’s name. I was told that he cannot sell or rent the house without my approval/signature to do so, is this correct? Also right now he is late sending the payments to the mortgage company and we are trying to catch back up. If the house gets foreclosed for any reason am I financially obligated? Also, when we do end up selling the house and we get it for less than it is worth, do I have to pay the difference or is he financially obligated to pay the difference?
Last question… he purchased a car, that I am now driving, before we got married. His name is on the title solely and he is solely making the payments. Can he take the car away from me?