Prior to our marriage, my ex owned a business and was leasing property and building from which he conducted his business. After we married, he cancelled the lease and purchased the building and property. I stayed home to run the house although I did help with running errands, attending seminars and doing odd jobs for the business which freed up time for him to further his education regarding running the business and increasing the income to the business. (I also worked part time, outside the home). Seven years later, I was granted a divorce (I filed for ED prior to divorce) and he married his girlfriend. We have not been able to go forward with ED/mediation because he refuses to produce exactly what the accountant and attorney have asked for. BUT, since his new marriage, he has taken out a loan against all the equity in the business property in order to build a new home with all the amenities for himself and girlfriend.
He was ordered, at least 3 years ago, not to dispurse or disturb any asset that may be considered marital property. Although I am not on the title to the business property, it was purchased after our marriage. Therefore, (1) would it not be considered marital property? and, if so,(2) since he obtained a loan against the property equity to build his new home, would it then be considered marital property and subject to ED?
It has been 3 years since the divorce and not one item has been settled regarding ED. It seems to me that I could claim interest in the new home in order to force him to produce documents and settle up once and for all.
I thank you in advance for your help.
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Yes, the business is martial property. The new home is not, since it was purchased after the marriage (though he will have to account for martial money that he spent contributing to this new home).