Separate property vs intended marital property


My spouse used inheritance money (separate property) to use as a down payment on our home 7 months before we were married, so the house is in his name. The house was intended to become marital property but we never put it into both of our names. My entire paycheck went into the household expenses for 3 years. Does the ‘assumption’ that the home was marital property give me any right to it in ED?


Because the home was never retitled into joint names, the money inheritance money that went into the home should be treated as his separate property. But, any marital increase in equity or value (mortgage payments made with marital funds, repairs or renovations made with marital funds, etc.) is considered marital property. So while his inheritance money is protected; it sounds like there still is a marital component to the home.