Both names on deed to paid for home. Any exclusions why I wouldn’t be entitled to half the house. Thanks
To be entitled to one-half of the value of a house, the house must be marital property. This means the house must have been acquired during the marriage. If one spouse purchased the house prior to the marriage, the house could still be marital property if you helped pay down the mortgage, helped do and finance improvements, etc.
If one of these is applicable to your situation, then you are likely entitled to one-half of the value of the house.
Attorney with Rosen Law Firm Cary • Chapel Hill • Durham • Raleigh
Rosen Online | Unlimited confidential access to a North Carolina attorney for $199/mo - click here
The response posted above is based upon the limited factual information made available and is not intended as a full and complete response to the question. The only reliable manner to obtain complete and adequate legal advice is to consult with an attorney, fully explain your situation, and allow the attorney sufficient opportunity to research the applicable law and facts required to render an accurate opinion. The basic information provided above is intended as a public service only, a full discussion with an attorney should be undertaken before taking any action. The information posted on this forum is available for public viewing and is not intended to create an attorney client relationship with any individual. These answers are provided for informational purposes only, a person should consult with their own individual legal counsel before taking any action that could affect their legal rights or obligations.