My ex-wife and me divorced 12/17/2010 and upon the execution of the divorce, I became the “sole owner of the house, free of any right or claim of the wife.” The papers go on to say that “in consideration for the conveyance of the interests of the wife in the house to the husband, the husband will pay to the wife the sum of $11,000.00 upon the sale of the house.”
With all that said, I have now remarried and my new wife and me are about to move to another home…due to the current housing market we are deciding to rent the home we’re currently in (that I onced shared with my ex-wife) Is there anything keeping me from doing so? My ex seems to think I cannot rent it without paying her a portion of the profits made from the rent, but theres nothing in the papers that says I have to give her anything. I understand that she gets 11k “IF” I ever sell the home, but if I choose to never sale the home and rent it, is that not my decision without any consideration of the ex?
Thanks so much for your time,