If I had $100K in my 401K prior to marriage, now, 10 years later, rolled it into an IRA, now worth $250K, mostly growth with one small $25K 401K rollover that happened about 6 years ago. Since the $25K was contributed during the marriage, does this mean I comingled premarital and marital investments, making the whole $250K marital? I kept the money separate as possible, and did not think a 401K rollover to consolidate accounts would result in having to split it all? Or am I eligible to identify the separate premarital funds and acknowledge the $25K as marital property?
Help - I feel the tide is shifting and washing away all my hard work, financial planning and consumption of PBJs at a very early age.
Gracias, Felix
No, the premarital amount and the growth thereon remains separate property, and it is not subject to division.