We are exploring two options. Our house has a 1st that 2040.00 and a 2nd that about 285.00. The payoff would be approx 415.000. I could probably get the first refinanced in my name but loan to value will not allow both. So option one I refi the first and she stays on the 2nd for up to 7 yrs until i sell it or market improves and can refi 2nd in my name alone, this would give her the opportunity to purchase another home as her being on the 2nd should not have much of an impact we have very little debt barring the 1st and 2nd - she makes about 55k plus will be recving about 700.00 in Child support. She is or has been reluctant to agree to this. The second option is for us to simply list the house and hope we break even or have little out of pocket expense to be split. She would be moving out as she admitted to Adultry and if push comes to shove we will also file for Divorse of bed and board. This would prevent her from being able to get any type of loan until and god only knows when our house sells. MY question is would it be expected or unreasonable to expect her to help with some of the house payment she makes about 55k and I about 110k
You are not entitled to spousal support and will be the one remaining in the home. It would be unreasonable to seek contribution towards the house payment from her.