I had a house 8 years prior to marriage, been married for ~4 years. Sold the house ~2 years in. Deposited the proceeds into a joint account (probably not the best idea!). I assume that the house would have been personal property, but once I sold the house and deposited the proceeds is that deposit considered a ‘gift’ to the marriage and now marital property? All expenses and etc were paid for that house out of a non-joint account.
The home was indeed your separate property, and if you can trace the proceeds they are your separate property as well.