Property I owned before it mine

Dear JeanBonner:

Greetings. Yes, the house is still your separate property, unless you placed his name on the deed at some point, which you did not mention. The house will likely have some marital equity from payments made during the marriage, since all funds earned by either party during the marriage are marital. If you paid for the house payments out of separate funds, owned prior to the marriage, then the house may have no marital equity. Best of luck.

Janet L. Fritts
Attorney with Rosen Divorce
4101 Lake Boone Trail, Suite 500
Raleigh, North Carolina 27607

The response posted above is based upon the limited factual information made available and is not intended as a full and complete response to the question. The only reliable manner to obtain complete and adequate legal advice is to consult with an attorney, fully explain your situation, and allow the attorney sufficient opportunity to research the applicable law and facts required to render an accurate opinion. The basic information provided above is intended as a public service but a full discussion with an attorney should be undertaken before taking any action.

If I owned property before I married, does he get half? Also the house we are in was built and paid for by me. We moved in the NEW house 2 months after we married. He has never made a payment on the house. The house is in my name and the loan is in my name? Does he get half of the house? He lied about how many times he had been married. Does that help? We have been married 13 months. Thanks so much!