Real estate help

Notes for the fourm

I purchased a house five years before I met and married my wife. Because of much insistent three years that we were married I placed her name also on the deed.

With her father’s help we purchased another house for him to live in close to us. Within three months after we moved in he passed away. His original houses place for sale and sold and the second mortgage was paid off. The house that he had help purchase close to us was never put in his name but was put in my wife’s name. We also purchased a small vacation after that which is in both of our names. my concern is that my wife believe that this house that was for her father to live in is part of her inheritance and not part of marital asset. We have owned this house for four years now.

Does she have clean the house that I own five years prior to our marriage we’ve been married 10 years. And is the house that we’ve had for four years just in her name but on when we were married still part of marital property?

The house that you owned prior to marriage is now marital property and subject to being divided equally now that the deed is titled in your joint names. This will be seen as a gift to the marriage.

The house that you and your wife purchased with the intention of her father living in it may be marital property or it may be her separate property. It may be marital property depending on the source of funds used to purchase it. If there were marital funds used, then it would be marital property. However, if you signed a free trader agreement in order for that property to be titled in only your wife’s name, you may have waived any marital interest in that property, therefore, it would be your wife’s separate property.


Anna Ayscue

Attorney with Rosen Law Firm Cary • Chapel Hill • Durham • Raleigh • Wake Forest

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