At the end of a recent hearing, the judge made an order. The two opposing attorneys were told to write it up. They emailed it back and forth. A year later, it was discovered that the judge had never signed the final order. All the while, the parties to the order have been acting on the judge’s verbal order made in court. What is the practical effect of the judge having never signed the order? Is it enforceable, since the judge made the ruling verbally in open court? Or is it up in the air since it was never signed?
The order is still valid as the judge ruled on it in court.
Sorry to belabor the point. I had asked another attorney for her point of view on whether the order was enforceable (maybe that’s subtly different from what I originally asked you. She said the order would not be enforceable until it was signed and dated by the judge. This seems to contradict what you said. Is it possible both opinions are correct. I’m a little confused.
A ruling by the judge is enforceable from the time the judge makes a ruling.