In 2006 my husband signed over two properties to me in North Carolina, (one of which has my home on it where I live) because I owned three homes prior to our fifteen-year marriage and we agreed these properties would belong to me and me alone, since I invested a few hundred thousand in a law firm for him from money I brought into the marriage and made from my stock investments. So, in a sort of quid pro quo, we agreed I would get the house and properties as mine alone and he would have no claim to them, ever.
In the papers he signed, it specifically states that he is giving up ALL marital rights to these properties. I have the Warranty Deed giving the properties to me.
Now, we have filed for divorce and he is trying to throw it into the marital ‘pot.’ He is a trial lawyer (in Florida) and I believe he is only using this to ‘scare’ me into agreeing to his version of a marriage settlement agreement, which I don’t agree to. Can he do this and can he win?
The only thing I’ve done thus far is research the issue and have only found issues dealing with quitclaims in regard to a mortgage. However, I have NO mortgage on either property.
These properties were purchased during the marriage.
I don’t want a mere MSA, I am seeking alimony and an un-equitable distribution as I have irrefutable proof of numerous affairs, including with his clients, in addition to about $200,000.00 spent on and given to his paramours, all of which I have proof of.