Thank you so much for the help so far.
Question this time -
Part 1 - If there is not an agreement in place, at what point is Dad required to pay child support?
(a) the date he left the marital home, or
(b) as of the date a claim is filed with Child Support Enforcement and/or the Court?
And, when formally ordered, will CS be retroactive to whichever date is applicable based on the answer to the above?
Part 2 - If there is not an agreement and, to date, there have not been any CSE or court claims filed on the case, but Dad has - out of good faith - continued to direct deposit money into Mom’s account to help support his kids, can/will he receive ‘credit’ for that amount towards whatever the total (retro) amount of child support is?
Thank you, thank you, thank you!