So, my ex married me, but was not divorced from his first wife at the time. His divorce was six months later.

I didn’t know and found out about a year ago that our marriage was void.

So, he was guility of bigamy for our marriage. Somone told me that he would still have to be in a bigamous marriage in order to have charges filed against him (charges would have to be filed while he was still married to his first). Did I miss my opportunity?


The marriage itself can be attacked at any time as far as rights between the parties go. I am unsure of whether or not it can be prosecuted at this time (or if the DA’s office would even take the time to deal with this type of case).