So, my ex married me, but was not divorced from his first wife at the time. His divorce was six months later.
I didn’t know and found out about a year ago that our marriage was void.
So, he was guility of bigamy for our marriage. Somone told me that he would still have to be in a bigamous marriage in order to have charges filed against him (charges would have to be filed while he was still married to his first). Did I miss my opportunity?