Court ordered me to pay 50% of medical and dental which was unfair due to huge disparity in incomes. Ex signed the billing consent form at orthodontist office. I did not. Now, the orthodontist office is calling me requesting payment. Since I did not sign for bill responsibility, am I still liable? Do Court Orders override someone’s responsibility if he signed that he would pay? Should not both of us have signed? Thanks!
If the court order limits your contribution to “necessary expenses” you may have an argument that orthodontia is not necessary.