Bill


#1

Court ordered me to pay 50% of medical and dental which was unfair due to huge disparity in incomes. Ex signed the billing consent form at orthodontist office. I did not. Now, the orthodontist office is calling me requesting payment. Since I did not sign for bill responsibility, am I still liable? Do Court Orders override someone’s responsibility if he signed that he would pay? Should not both of us have signed? Thanks!


#2

If the court order limits your contribution to “necessary expenses” you may have an argument that orthodontia is not necessary.