My husband and his ex-wife’s divorce was finalized in July 2007 and their separation agreement was made part of the divorce decree. They have 2 children together and at the time she did not work. Due to the circumstances, my husband agreed to pay $1,000 a month to give her time to get on her feet and get settled. This included the car payment and car insurance (which were in his name) that were listed as part of child support and the difference was given in the form of a check. The car will be paid off in the next few months and we have surpassed the 3 year mark, but she is still unemployed and has no intention of acquiring a job, stating that since he agreed for her to be a stay at home mom when they were together years ago, she still gets to be. When the car is paid off, she wants him to write her a check for $1,000 a month. She is unemployed and has been for almost 7 years, their youngest child will be 4 next month and they have shared custody with equal time spent with the kids. We did the worksheet online and it is half of what he has been paying so he has definitely shown good faith on his part.
Questions: is she correct that bc he agreed for her to be a stay at home mom she gets to always do that?
will the courts factor in her potential earnings?
is the divorce decree considered a court order that the court will not change?
will they factor in the fact that he has another child now as well?
will his good faith then be a factor or actually hurt him?
what are his chances at a good outcome?