I think that you can include it providing that there was the understanding of the debt being paid back. If your parents were just giving you money, then you can not include it. I think that for this to hold up under scrutiny you must show where you are also paying your portion of this debt.
My husband’s ex did this to him. Her mother gave them money to go on a vacation the year prior to them separating. After we began dating she had her mother contact him about paying her back for the loan. He paid the amount in full and then she used that money to hire an attorney…
I’m not saying that your situation is like this but you can see where it would be very difficult to show an actual debt without a written agreement between you that you were to pay this money back to them.
Did you have a written loan agreement? Have you been paying these debts back?
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Curious about this also. Was this 2 year period before or after the date of separation? If before, then I guess you’d have the burden of proving that it was indeed a loan and not a gift. If after, wouldn’t it be individual as opposed to marital?
quote:
[i]Originally posted by Nan[/i] [br]My parents have loaned me a considerable amount of money over the last 2 years, when my controlling spouse refused to give me grocery money, etc.. Can this debt now be considered marital debt?
The loans were made in the last 2 years (before separation). I have not paid them back, because I have not had the money. We do have the amounts written down. The money was used to buy gas and groceries – which he helped eat.
Yeah, definitely sounds like marital debt. The problem will be proving it, though.
My parents have loaned me a considerable amount of money over the last 2 years, when my controlling spouse refused to give me grocery money, etc… Can this debt now be considered marital debt?