In my mother’s case, the Court ruled that settlement money from an accident was marital property and that each party could not liquidate any assets without written consent from opposing counsel. My mother’s “husband” has liquidated and spent the substantial sum from the settlement. There has been no permission given. Her attorney is now telling us that since she made no “contributions” to this money, that the Court would not have awarded her anything anyway. He is now advocating that there be no divorce.
Her attorney also told us that the opposing attorney was given permission to be absent from a Court contempt hearing because his car broke down and his cell phone was not working. I find this questionable because if his car was broken down and his cell not working, how did he notify the Court he couldn’t attend the hearing? Couldn’t he have gotten a ride with his wife or his daughter? How did he notify the Court? I think neither attorney wants any hearings to occur because they both know they do not have the required documentation granting permission for “liquidation”. What on earth is going on???