My wife and I have been married for a little over 2 years. Prior to marriage I owned a home and had a separate brokerage account. During our marriage, I received an inheritance, which I put a majority of into our house when we refinanced. At the same time, I added her name to the mortgage and deed. Now my wife is asking for a no-fault divorce. We are both college graduates and during the first 18 months of our marriage earned approximately the same amount of money. Six months ago, my wife decided to go back to school and voluntarily reduced her hours at work. She has the option to work more hours with her current employer who does not require the additional education for her employment.
1.Since I put in a vast majority of the money and sweat equity into our house, will that affect equitable distribution once our house sells? There will be no appreciation when we sell the house, so the only money coming out, will be what I have put into it.
2.Since she is working and earning less, will I be required to make up the difference in alimony even though she has the option to work more?
3.Can I be required to sell my separate property (ie from my brokerage account) to pay alimony? Or will alimony be based on my present income? Will my living expense be considered when determining alimony?