My wife saw a lawyer this week which raised a few questions.
The lawyer told her that her name was on a deed, of a house I bought before I got married to her. I recheck with Graven County Deed office (online) and it clearly states that I am the only person on the deed, apparently he is feeding her false information, just to get her as a client. Secondly he said that since I deposited large sums of money into a joint checking account to pay for the house, that she is entitled to half the proceeds of the sale of this house. My money was “parked” in this account for a week or so till I closed on the house, again all the funds to buy this house came from me, she didn’t spend a dime on buying this house. I can proof that all the money came from me. Is her lawyer correct?
She did co-sign for a home equity loan I took out on this house. We only got the home equity loan because of my excellent credit rating and that I am employed. Her credit rating is in the 400’s and she is un-employed, while my credit rating is around 775. In my opinion, since she signed, she is responsible for half the debt, am I correct? Any other consequences of this arrangement?
Last question, When we bought our primary residence, in August of last year ( because I was unable to sell my house, mentioned in my first question) I took money out of my 401K (My money, as I had it before I got married to her), as a down payment on this house. Without this money we wouldn’t have been able to buy this house. I needed to provide shelter for my 4 legal children. Can I claim that it was my money (from before we got married) and therefore I am entitled to get that money back, from the final selling price of this house?
It is (was) a short term marriage, less than two years, and the children are legally mine from a previous marriage.
Thanks.