Sir’s
I have been married for over 4.5 years. The only time I have had no sexual relations with My wife during this period except for the night we got married. My question to you is this. I have tried to continued to try and have relations and be affectionate with her is not only issue because of the no response, my other issue is that emotional fitness of my life has been estranged because of her kids dragging us down, with emotional drama in the house day after day, to the point of us arguing all the time. The point where we we did fight she would ask for a divorce and said shes tired of me and hated me. So the last time she asked I said yes, Well since that night, a month or so later I have been talking to someone else, I told this person that I was through with the marriage, I have also told my Wife I was done with it all. but all we have done is talk, this person has never tried to alienate me from my wife. It was done prior to her and I talking. Is this considered Alienation of Affection, since I had no affection in My marriage in the first place. Any help would be greatly appreciated.