Puchase of home


#1

My husband purchased a new home 2 weeks after separating and did use marital funds but I never signed any agreement so i guess it can be done.


#2

There are certain exceptions where a Free Trader Agreement is not needed, however I do not practice property law and do not know off the top of my head what they are. I will research the issue and report back when I have additional information. Please remind me if you do not see a response within a week.

Helena M. Nevicosi
Attorney with Rosen Law Firm

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Raleigh, North Carolina 27607
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The response posted above is based upon the limited factual information made available and is not intended as a full and complete response to the question. The only reliable manner to obtain complete and adequate legal advice is to consult with an attorney, fully explain your situation, and allow the attorney sufficient opportunity to research the applicable law and facts required to render an accurate opinion. The basic information provided above is intended as a public service only, a full discussion with an attorney should be undertaken before taking any action. The information posted on this forum is available for public viewing and is not intended to create an attorney client relationship with any individual. These answers are provided for informational purposes only, a person should consult with their own individual legal counsel before taking any action that could affect their legal rights or obligations.


#3

Ex purchased a home 5 months after separation. I did not sign a free trader agreement or anything. Previously, Ms. Fritz stated that I had no interest. Everything else that I have read on here says that ex could not have purchased this property without a free trader agreement. Marital funds were not used, but the house was purchased prior to the divorce. Why does the free trader apply to everyone else except me?